FEAST Test: 30 Practice Questions and Air Traffic Control Guide

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What Is the FEAST Test?

FEAST, or the First European Air Traffic Controller Selection Test, is a test battery developed by EUROCONTROL to help civil and military air navigation service providers (ANSPs) and certified ATC training academies identify suitable air traffic controller candidates.

FEAST is not one single country’s national exam. It is a shared framework made available to organizations worldwide, though not every country or ANSP uses it. Exact modules, sequencing, and pass thresholds are set by the organization running your recruitment, not by this guide.

The 30 questions on this page are original educational exercises. They are not official FEAST, EUROCONTROL, ANSP, training-academy, or ATCPracticeTest.com questions, and they do not reproduce proprietary radar screens, Multipass or DART interfaces, or live ATC procedures.

Explore FEAST preparation guides on ATC Practice Test

ATCPracticeTest.com is an independent preparation site. It is not EUROCONTROL or any ANSP. Preparation cannot guarantee a FEAST result or a training offer.

FEAST assesses the knowledge, skills, and abilities considered relevant to the job of an air traffic controller. According to EUROCONTROL, the test battery is used by dozens of civil and military ANSPs and certified ATC aviation training academies and universities worldwide.

FEAST does not require candidates to already have air traffic control experience. All necessary task instructions are provided during testing, and EUROCONTROL states that the tests are designed for beginners with no ATC background.

Who Takes It and Eligibility

FEAST is used by participating civil and military ANSPs and certified ATC training academies. It is not used by every European country. For example, based on currently available official candidate information, France’s main public recruitment route for air traffic controllers generally runs through DGAC and ENAC, including the ICNA competitive examination, rather than through FEAST.

Eligibility, invitation rules, and which FEAST modules apply are set by the recruiting organization. If you are unsure whether your campaign uses FEAST, check your official candidate invitation or contact the organization directly.

Assessment Format

FEAST I, FEAST II, and FEAST III Explained

The full FEAST package generally consists of three parts, though not every organization uses all three, and personality testing in particular varies by organization.

FEAST I: Cognitive Tests and English

FEAST I is described by EUROCONTROL as a set of cognitive ability tests plus an English language test, generally taking about 2.5 to 4 hours in total.

FEAST I is intended to measure basic skills and abilities including:

• decision-making;
• planning ability;
• memory;
• logical reasoning;
• visual perception;
• attention;
• multitasking;
• spatial orientation;
• English language knowledge.

All parts of FEAST I are typically presented as multiple-choice questions and scored by computer for consistency.

FEAST II: Work-Sample Multitasking Tests

Candidates who pass FEAST I may be invited to a second stage. FEAST II generally takes about 1.5 to 2 hours and can include one or two work-sample tests:

• the RADAR test, also referred to as the FEAST DART (Dynamic ATC Radar Test), where candidates manage aircraft headings and altitudes shown on a radar-style display to avoid conflicts;
• the Multi-Pass test, which simulates managing traffic in an area, resolving potential conflicts, handing aircraft between sectors, and occasionally responding to brief audio-style information.

These are described as work-sample tests because they are closer to a simplified simulation of ATC-style multitasking than a traditional multiple-choice question. This guide does not reproduce these interfaces. The practice questions later on this page use text-based scenarios to train the underlying attention, spatial, and multitasking skills instead.

FEAST III: Personality Questionnaire

Where used, FEAST III is a personality questionnaire intended to assess behavioral tendencies relevant to the controller role. EUROCONTROL notes that the exact content of this phase differs among the organizations that use FEAST, and it is used by many but not all FEAST user organizations.

Skills Evaluated

FEAST I is intended to measure basic skills and abilities including:

• decision-making and planning ability;
• memory;
• logical reasoning;
• visual perception and attention;
• multitasking;
• spatial orientation;
• English language knowledge.

FEAST II work-sample stages emphasize ATC-style multitasking under changing instructions. FEAST III, where used, focuses on behavioral tendencies rather than cognitive speed. Exact scoring rules remain with the recruiting organization.

FEAST vs FAA ATSA vs NAV CANADA

FEAST, the FAA ATSA, and the NAV CANADA assessment process are three different systems, not different names for the same test.

• The FAA ATSA is a United States assessment administered through Pearson VUE for FAA air traffic controller hiring. See the FAA ATSA Test guide.
• FEAST is the EUROCONTROL framework covered on this page, used by ANSPs and academies mainly in Europe and internationally.
• The NAV CANADA assessment process is Canada’s own selection pathway for ATCO and Flight Service Specialist candidates. See the NAV Canada Assessment guide.

For a side-by-side comparison of all three, see the Air Traffic Control Tests hub.

How to Prepare (5 Steps)

1. Check whether your recruiting organization provides official familiarization material. EUROCONTROL provides a free official training platform for candidates to learn testing principles before the real assessment.
2. Learn the broad skill areas covered by FEAST I: decision-making, planning, memory, logical reasoning, visual perception, attention, multitasking, spatial orientation, and English.
3. Practice relevant aptitude skills using ethical, non-proprietary practice material rather than searching for leaked or “real” FEAST questions.
4. Build comfort with timed, computer-based tasks before test day.
5. If invited to FEAST II, understand conceptually what the RADAR/DART and Multi-Pass tests measure, without expecting any unofficial resource to reproduce the live interface, and confirm your test date, required identification, and instructions directly with your recruiting organization.

Avoid any resource that claims to sell “real” or “leaked” FEAST questions. EUROCONTROL and the organizations that use FEAST do not authorize third parties to reproduce live test content, and relying on such claims can create false confidence or ethical and confidentiality problems.

Assessment Tips

• Confirm which FEAST modules your organization actually uses before buying prep.
• Practice accuracy first, then add time pressure.
• Do not assume FEAST requires prior aviation or ATC knowledge.
• Recover quickly from a single error so it does not cascade into later items.
• Treat FEAST III personality items, where used, honestly and consistently.
• Passing FEAST I or FEAST II does not guarantee a training place or employment offer.

Question Types With Original Educational Examples

The following 30 questions are original, practice-style items grouped by skill area. They are designed to train the underlying concepts associated with FEAST I and, where noted, FEAST II, without reproducing any radar screen, live simulation interface, or official test item.

Section 1: Attention (Questions 1-5)

Question 1

Count how many times the letter T appears in the following line:

T Q T L T Q L T Q L T

A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

Correct answer: C

Explanation: There are five occurrences of T in the sequence.

Question 2

Count only the number 4 when it appears immediately before the letter B.

4B 7B 4C 4B 9B 4A 4B

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

Correct answer: B

Explanation: The valid targets are 4B, 4B, and 4B, which appear three times. The 4C and 4A pairs do not match the rule.

Question 3

Scan the row below and identify how many shapes are different from the majority shape.

▲ ▲ ▲ ● ▲ ▲ ■ ▲ ▲

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Correct answer: B

Explanation: The majority shape is the triangle. One circle and one square do not match, so two shapes are different.

Question 4

You are told: “Respond only when the number is both even and greater than 10.” Which numbers below require a response?

8, 14, 3, 22, 9, 16

A. 14 and 22 only B. 14, 22, and 16 C. 8, 14, 22, and 16 D. All even numbers

Correct answer: B

Explanation: 14, 22, and 16 are even and greater than 10. 8 is even but not greater than 10.

Question 5

While monitoring a screen, you must ignore any symbol that repeats twice in a row and count only the first occurrence. Count the valid symbols:

X X Y Z Z X Y Y X

A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Reading left to right and counting only the first symbol in each repeated run gives: X, Y, Z, X, Y, X, which is five distinct counted symbols after collapsing the two repeated pairs (X X and Z Z and Y Y each count once).

Section 2: Spatial Reasoning (Questions 6-10)

Question 6

An aircraft is heading north. It turns 90 degrees right, then 90 degrees right again. Which direction is it now heading?

A. North B. East C. South D. West

Correct answer: C

Explanation: North turning right twice by 90 degrees each time equals 180 degrees, which points south.

Question 7

Aircraft A is west of Aircraft B. Aircraft C is west of Aircraft A. Which aircraft is furthest east?

A. Aircraft A B. Aircraft B C. Aircraft C D. Cannot be determined

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Ordering from west to east: C, then A, then B. Aircraft B is furthest east.

Question 8

A shape points to the right (→). If it is rotated 90 degrees clockwise, then 90 degrees clockwise again, which direction does it now point?

A. Up B. Down C. Left D. Right

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Two 90-degree clockwise rotations equal a 180-degree turn, so right becomes left.

Question 9

On a display, Object 1 is above Object 2. Object 3 is below Object 2. Which object is in the middle position?

A. Object 1 B. Object 2 C. Object 3 D. They are all equal

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Object 1 is above Object 2 and Object 3 is below Object 2, so Object 2 is in the middle.

Question 10

A cube has opposite face pairs: P opposite S, Q opposite T, R opposite U. Can faces Q and T appear next to each other on an unfolded net without sharing an edge on the assembled cube?

A. Yes, they can share an edge B. No, opposite faces never share an edge C. Only if the net is folded incorrectly D. Cannot be determined

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Opposite faces on a cube never share an edge once the cube is assembled, regardless of how they appear on the flat net.

Section 3: Memory (Questions 11-15)

Question 11

Memorize this sequence, then answer without looking back: 6 - 1 - 8 - 3 - 5. What was the fourth number?

A. 1 B. 8 C. 3 D. 5

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Counting in order (6, 1, 8, 3, 5), the fourth number is 3.

Question 12

Initial values: A = 5, B = 9, C = 3. Apply these updates: add 2 to A, subtract 4 from B, triple C. What are the final values?

A. A = 7, B = 5, C = 9 B. A = 5, B = 9, C = 3 C. A = 9, B = 5, C = 7 D. A = 7, B = 13, C = 6

Correct answer: A

Explanation: A = 5 + 2 = 7. B = 9 - 4 = 5. C = 3 x 3 = 9.

Question 13

You are shown three names and their assigned codes: Delta = 12, Foxtrot = 7, Sierra = 20. A moment later you are asked: which code belongs to Foxtrot?

A. 12 B. 7 C. 20 D. Cannot be determined

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Foxtrot was assigned code 7.

Question 14

Which pair below is not identical?

A. 8264 / 8264 B. 5391 / 5391 C. 7106 / 7160 D. 4483 / 4483

Correct answer: C

Explanation: 7106 and 7160 have the same digits in a different order, so they are not identical.

Question 15

Remember this short list in order: circle, square, triangle, circle. Which shape appeared twice?

A. Square B. Triangle C. Circle D. None of them

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Circle appears first and again at the end of the list.

Section 4: Logical Reasoning (Questions 16-20)

Question 16

All candidates who pass FEAST I are invited to FEAST II. Candidate M was not invited to FEAST II. What must be true?

A. Candidate M passed FEAST I. B. Candidate M did not pass FEAST I. C. Candidate M passed FEAST II. D. FEAST II is optional.

Correct answer: B

Explanation: If passing FEAST I leads to an invitation to FEAST II, then not being invited means FEAST I was not passed.

Question 17

Only candidates cleared by the recruiting organization may proceed to FEAST II. Candidate N proceeded to FEAST II. What must be true?

A. Candidate N was cleared by the recruiting organization. B. Candidate N was not cleared. C. FEAST II has no eligibility requirement. D. Candidate N skipped FEAST I.

Correct answer: A

Explanation: If only cleared candidates may proceed, then a candidate who proceeded must have been cleared.

Question 18

If a task response is late, it is marked as missed. Task 9 was not marked as missed. What can be concluded?

A. Task 9 was late. B. Task 9 was not late. C. Task 9 was never attempted. D. All tasks are marked as missed.

Correct answer: B

Explanation: If late responses are marked missed, then a task not marked missed was not late.

Question 19

Some candidates who complete FEAST I also complete an English test on the same day. All candidates who complete the English test on the same day receive combined results within one week. What must be true?

A. Some candidates who complete FEAST I receive combined results within one week. B. All candidates who complete FEAST I receive combined results within one week. C. No candidates receive combined results. D. Only English test candidates complete FEAST I.

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Some FEAST I candidates take the same-day English test, and all same-day English test candidates receive combined results within a week, so some FEAST I candidates receive combined results within a week.

Question 20

A rule states: “If the alert is high priority, respond within 10 seconds; otherwise, respond within 30 seconds.” An alert was answered in 25 seconds. What can be concluded?

A. The alert was high priority. B. The alert was not high priority. C. The response was too slow either way. D. Nothing can be concluded.

Correct answer: B

Explanation: A high-priority alert requires a response within 10 seconds. Since the response took 25 seconds and still met a valid rule, it must have fallen under the non-high-priority 30-second rule.

Section 5: Multitasking (Questions 21-25)

Question 21

You are tracking two things at once: Task 1, count every Z; Task 2, press a mental “flag” whenever a number greater than 7 appears. Sequence: Z 3 9 Z 5 8 Z. How many Z symbols appeared, and how many numbers were greater than 7?

A. 3 Z symbols, 2 numbers greater than 7 B. 2 Z symbols, 3 numbers greater than 7 C. 3 Z symbols, 3 numbers greater than 7 D. 2 Z symbols, 2 numbers greater than 7

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Z appears three times. The numbers are 3, 9, 5, 8; only 9 and 8 are greater than 7, which is two numbers.

Question 22

You must monitor three alerts with different urgency: Alert X (low priority, due in 25 seconds), Alert Y (high priority, due in 12 seconds), Alert Z (medium priority, due in 6 seconds). Which should you handle first?

A. Alert X, because it was listed first B. Alert Y, because it is high priority C. Alert Z, because it is due soonest D. All three at the same time

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Even though Alert Z is due sooner, Alert Y has the higher priority level, and priority generally outweighs a small timing difference in multitasking-style prioritization tasks.

Question 23

Two aircraft are converging: Aircraft A is moving east, Aircraft B is moving south, and their paths will cross near the same point. What should you monitor first?

A. Their paint color B. Whether their arrival times at the crossing point create a conflict C. Only Aircraft A’s speed D. Nothing, since they are moving in different directions

Correct answer: B

Explanation: A crossing path is only a genuine conflict if the timing at the intersection point creates insufficient separation, so timing at the crossing point is what should be monitored.

Question 24

While completing a memory update task, you are also asked to respond to a separate audio-style prompt describing a rule change. What is the best strategy?

A. Ignore the audio prompt completely and finish the memory task first B. Pause briefly to register the rule change accurately, then resume the memory task C. Guess the memory answer quickly so you can focus only on the audio prompt D. Assume the rule change does not apply to you

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Multitasking-style tasks generally reward accurately registering new information before continuing, rather than ignoring one stream entirely or rushing the other.

Question 25

You are told: “If you make an error on one item, do not let it affect your response to the next item.” After realizing you answered Question 10 incorrectly, what is the best response for Question 11?

A. Skip Question 11 entirely B. Rush through the remaining items to make up time C. Treat Question 11 as a fresh item and answer it carefully D. Change your Question 10 answer after the fact

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Recovering quickly from a single error and treating the next item independently helps avoid a chain of repeated mistakes, which is a core multitasking discipline skill.

Section 6: English and Following Instructions (Questions 26-30)

Question 26

Read the sentence: “The aircraft must reach the assigned altitude before contacting the next sector.” Which event happens first?

A. Contacting the next sector B. Reaching the assigned altitude C. Both happen at exactly the same time D. Neither is required

Correct answer: B

Explanation: The word “before” indicates that reaching the assigned altitude occurs first.

Question 27

Instruction: “Select the smallest even number.” Options: 15, 8, 22, 6, 9. Which is correct?

A. 15 B. 8 C. 6 D. 22

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Among the even numbers (8, 22, 6), the smallest is 6. 15 and 9 are odd and do not qualify.

Question 28

Read: “Candidates should complete Part A before Part B, unless instructed otherwise by the test administrator.” What does “unless instructed otherwise” allow?

A. Candidates may always choose their own order B. The administrator may override the default order C. Part B is never required D. Part A is optional

Correct answer: B

Explanation: The phrase creates an exception controlled by the administrator, not by the candidate’s own preference.

Question 29

Instruction: “Press the response key only for numbers that are odd and less than 5.” Which numbers below require a response?

2, 3, 7, 4, 1, 9

A. 3 and 1 B. 3, 1, and 9 C. 2 and 4 D. 7 and 9

Correct answer: A

Explanation: 3 and 1 are both odd and less than 5. 9 is odd but not less than 5, and 2 and 4 are even.

Question 30

Read the short passage: “Candidates who arrive after the scheduled start time may not be permitted to test and may need to reschedule according to the organization’s policy.” According to the passage, what happens if a candidate arrives late?

A. They are always allowed to test with no consequence B. They may be refused testing and may need to reschedule C. The test is automatically canceled for everyone D. Late arrival has no described consequence

Correct answer: B

Explanation: The passage states that late candidates may not be permitted to test and may need to reschedule, which directly supports answer B.

FEAST Practice Answer Key

1. C
2. B
3. B
4. B
5. B
6. C
7. B
8. C
9. B
10. B
11. C
12. A
13. B
14. C
15. C
16. B
17. A
18. B
19. A
20. B
21. A
22. B
23. B
24. B
25. C
26. B
27. C
28. B
29. A
30. B

How to Score This Practice Set

This scoring guide is for the 30 practice questions on this page only. It is not an official FEAST scoring system, and no organization that uses FEAST publishes one universal pass threshold for every ANSP or academy.

• 27-30 correct: Strong grasp of the underlying concepts. Move toward timed, mixed practice.
• 21-26 correct: Solid foundation. Review the section where you missed the most questions.
• 15-20 correct: Moderate readiness. Practice attention, memory, and spatial reasoning separately before combining sections.
• Fewer than 15 correct: Start with untimed practice and review explanations closely before adding time pressure.

Common Challenges

Candidates often struggle with:

• Assuming FEAST is the same test everywhere. Modules, sequencing, and personality testing vary by organization.
• Searching for “real” or “leaked” FEAST questions instead of using ethical practice material.
• Practicing only English comprehension and ignoring memory, spatial reasoning, and multitasking.
• Skipping timed practice until the last minute.
• Assuming FEAST requires prior aviation or ATC knowledge, which EUROCONTROL does not state as a requirement.
• Assuming passing FEAST I, or even FEAST II, guarantees a training place or employment offer.

Practice Resource CTA

For structured FEAST pathway guides on our specialist aviation site, continue to FEAST preparation on ATC Practice Test.

For additional third-party FEAST-style drills, FEAST practice on JobTestPrep can help candidates build familiarity with similar aptitude formats. JobTestPrep is not affiliated with EUROCONTROL or any ANSP. Practice materials do not reproduce proprietary FEAST interfaces and do not guarantee a FEAST result or training offer.

Frequently Asked Questions

Sources

• EUROCONTROL: First European Air Traffic Controller Selection Test
• FEAST for Candidates

Related Guides

• Air Traffic Control Tests: FAA ATSA, FEAST and NAV Canada
• FEAST Preparation Guide
• Air Traffic Controller Aptitude Tests
• How to Become an Air Traffic Controller
• FAA ATSA Test
• NAV Canada Assessment

Continue with structured FEAST preparation guides on ATC Practice Test