RAF DAA Test: Defence Aptitude Assessment Practice Guide

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The Defence Aptitude Assessment (DAA) is the timed multi-part aptitude assessment used in Royal Air Force (RAF) recruitment after an application is accepted. Official RAF materials describe the DAA as previously called the Airmen Selection Test (AST). Treat AST as historical terminology when it conflicts with current DAA guidance.

The same Defence Aptitude Assessment family is also used in Royal Navy and Royal Marines joining processes. This guide is written primarily for RAF candidates and uses RAF official familiarisation pages as the main source. Naval-service applicants should confirm delivery rules, practice links and next steps on the relevant Royal Navy careers pages.

This page covers the current DAA name, six-part structure, online or Armed Forces Careers Office (AFCO) delivery, role-score variation, ethical preparation and original drills. It is not the British Army Army Cognitive Test soldier pathway, not AOSB officer selection, not a pilot-only or aircrew-only gate for every candidate, and not US Air Force testing. Confirm every requirement with your service invitation and recruiter.

The 45 questions below are original educational exercises. They are not official DAA, RAF, Royal Navy, Royal Marines, Ministry of Defence, AFCO or JobTestPrep questions, and they do not reproduce confidential live items or official familiarisation interfaces.

Key Takeaways

• Current official name: Defence Aptitude Assessment (DAA). AST is the previous name in RAF materials.
• Official RAF familiarisation describes six parts and a minimum duration of about 25 minutes, with timed sections.
• Role score requirements vary. RAF guidance states that roles require different DAA scores; do not treat one practice score as a universal pass mark.
• Delivery may be online on your own IT or at an AFCO using service IT, after your application is accepted.
• Royal Navy and Royal Marines also use the DAA in their joining processes. Confirm naval-service rules on Royal Navy careers pages.
• Third-party packs are optional familiarisation only. They are not official RAF or Defence materials.

Quick facts

Defence Aptitude Assessment snapshot (verify against your invitation)

Item	Detail
Current name	Defence Aptitude Assessment (DAA)
Historical name (RAF materials)	Airmen Selection Test (AST)
Official parts	Six timed aptitude parts
Skill families commonly practised	Verbal, numerical, work rate, spatial, electrical, mechanical
Official minimum duration note	RAF familiarisation states the test takes at least 25 minutes
Delivery (RAF)	Online on your own IT, or at an AFCO
Score use	Role and trade suitability discussion; thresholds vary by role
Shared Defence context	Also used in Royal Navy and Royal Marines joining processes
Not the same as	Army soldier cognitive tests / ACT; AOSB; US ASVAB

The current recruitment campaign controls. Check your invitation before preparing.

What official RAF guidance currently establishes

According to the RAF DAA familiarisation page:

• The DAA was previously called the Airmen Selection Test.
• It is made up of six parts covering a range of aptitude-based tests.
• The test takes at least 25 minutes. Each section is timed. When section time ends, the clock stops but remaining questions can still be answered before the next section.
• Roles in the RAF require different DAA scores, so incorrect or unfinished items do not automatically mean overall failure for every pathway.
• After a full application is accepted, candidates are invited to take the DAA online on their own IT, or may opt to sit it at an AFCO using service systems.

Royal Navy careers materials likewise describe a six-part Defence Aptitude Assessment used in Royal Navy and Royal Marines joining. Screen-size, sitting and validity rules can differ by service portal. Follow the invitation for the service you applied to.

Do not convert role-allocation scores into a single universal pass mark. Do not treat this guide as medical, fitness, nationality or security-clearance advice. Those stages remain separate and are controlled by official service guidance.

How to prepare

1. Start with the official RAF DAA familiarisation materials before buying anything. Naval-service applicants should also use the Royal Navy DAA practice pages when that is their route.
2. Practise each of the six skill families separately, then combine timed sets.
3. For numerical work, rebuild fluency with fractions, decimals, ratios and table reading without a calculator unless your invitation says otherwise.
4. For work rate and spatial items, prioritise calm scanning and consistent method over guessing.
5. Use third-party practice only as supplemental familiarity with similar question styles.
6. Prepare honestly: do not share live portal details, memorise leaked items, or misrepresent eligibility information.

Optional third-party RAF DAA practice

Some links on this page are affiliate links. We may earn a commission if you purchase through them, at no additional cost to you. See our Affiliate Disclosure.

If you want additional timed drills after official familiarisation, independent UK RAF DAA practice can help candidates practise comparable aptitude formats.

JobTestPrep UK is an independent third-party preparation provider. It is not the RAF, Royal Navy, Royal Marines, Ministry of Defence or official recruitment administrator. Commercial pages may brand the product as RAF aptitude practice even though the DAA is a shared Defence assessment family. PrepPack contents are optional familiarisation. They are not official service materials and do not reproduce live items. Check the current UK price and access period on the product page before purchase. Preparation cannot guarantee a trade allocation, interview invitation or job offer.

Practice questions

1. A training notice states: “Applicants must submit their medical forms before the interview unless the clinic is closed for refurbishment, in which case forms may be handed in on the interview day.” Which statement must be true?

A. Every applicant is allowed to hand forms in on the interview day. B. Applicants whose clinic is closed for refurbishment may hand forms in on the interview day. C. Clinics are always closed for refurbishment during interview week. D. Medical forms are never required before the interview.

Correct answer: B

The notice allows interview-day submission only when the clinic is closed for refurbishment. That does not mean every applicant may delay submission.

2. Passage: Fleet workshop managers report that overnight shift faults fall when a second supervisor is rostered. Day shifts already have two supervisors. Which conclusion is best supported?

A. Adding a second overnight supervisor is associated with fewer overnight faults in the report. B. Day shifts never experience faults. C. Overnight faults are caused only by poor lighting. D. One supervisor is always enough for any shift.

Correct answer: A

The passage links fewer overnight faults with a second overnight supervisor. It does not prove causation elsewhere or claim day shifts are fault-free.

3. “All flight planners complete navigation modules. Some flight planners also complete meteorology modules. No meteorology modules are optional for air traffic controllers.” Which follows?

A. Every air traffic controller completes navigation modules. B. No flight planner completes meteorology modules. C. Some people who complete navigation modules also complete meteorology modules. D. Meteorology modules are optional for all flight planners.

Correct answer: C

Some flight planners complete meteorology modules, and all flight planners complete navigation modules, so some navigation completers also complete meteorology.

4. Instruction: “Do not store fuel samples near heat sources or in direct sunlight for longer than 30 minutes.” What is the safest reading?

A. Fuel samples may sit in sunlight for an hour if cool. B. Heat sources are safer than sunlight for long storage. C. Samples can be stored anywhere if they are sealed. D. Fuel samples should avoid heat sources and should not remain in direct sunlight beyond 30 minutes.

Correct answer: D

Both conditions apply: avoid heat sources, and do not exceed 30 minutes in direct sunlight.

5. Report extract: “Unit A reduced paperwork errors by 40% after introducing a checklist. Unit B used the same checklist and saw no change.” Which inference is most cautious and reasonable?

A. Unit B staff ignored the checklist completely. B. The checklist alone does not guarantee fewer errors in every unit. C. Paperwork errors are impossible to reduce. D. Unit A must have used a different checklist.

Correct answer: B

Identical tools can produce different outcomes, so a checklist is not a universal guarantee of improvement.

6. “If a candidate scores below the pass mark on Stage 1, they cannot sit Stage 2 on the same day. Candidates who pass Stage 1 may sit Stage 2 the same afternoon.” A candidate sits Stage 2 the same afternoon. What can we conclude?

A. The candidate passed Stage 1. B. The candidate failed Stage 1. C. Stage 2 is optional for everyone. D. The candidate skipped Stage 1.

Correct answer: A

Same-afternoon Stage 2 is only open to those who passed Stage 1, so the candidate must have passed Stage 1.

7. Memo: “Spare radios are issued only to teams working beyond 20 km from base or teams supporting night operations.” Team Orion works 12 km from base during daylight only. Which is correct?

A. Team Orion must receive spare radios. B. Team Orion cannot receive spare radios under any rule. C. Under this memo alone, Team Orion does not qualify for spare radios. D. Night operations are forbidden within 20 km of base.

Correct answer: C

Team Orion meets neither distance nor night-operations condition, so the memo alone does not authorise issue.

8. “Most apprentices finish the tool-safety course in two days. A few apprentices need a third day. No apprentice is excused from the course.” Which statement is best supported?

A. Every apprentice finishes in exactly two days. B. Every apprentice must take the tool-safety course, and some need more than two days. C. A third day is required for most apprentices. D. Tool-safety courses are optional after the first day.

Correct answer: B

Nobody is excused, and a few need a third day, so all must take the course and some take longer than two days.

Numerical reasoning (questions 9-16)

9. A squadron orders 3 boxes of ear defenders. Each box holds 24 pairs and costs £96. What is the cost of one pair?

A. £4 B. £6 C. £8 D. £12

Correct answer: A

£96 divided by 24 pairs equals £4 per pair.

10. A recruit walks 4.5 km in 45 minutes at a steady pace. What is the speed in km/h?

A. 5 km/h B. 5.5 km/h C. 8 km/h D. 6 km/h

Correct answer: D

45 minutes is 0.75 hours, so 4.5 / 0.75 = 6 km/h.

11. A stores ledger shows 840 ration packs. 25% are reserved for exercises. How many packs are not reserved?

A. 540 B. 630 C. 600 D. 720

Correct answer: B

Not reserved: 75% of 840 = 630.

12. A generator uses 8 litres of fuel per hour. Fuel costs £1.45 per litre. What is the fuel cost for a 5-hour continuous run?

A. £48.00 B. £52.20 C. £58.00 D. £72.50

Correct answer: C

Fuel used: 8 x 5 = 40 litres. Cost: 40 x £1.45 = £58.00.

13. In a cohort of 120 candidates, the ratio of technicians to administrators is 5:3. How many technicians are there?

A. 75 B. 45 C. 60 D. 90

Correct answer: A

Parts: 5 + 3 = 8. Each part: 120 / 8 = 15. Technicians: 5 x 15 = 75.

14. A rectangular parade ground measures 48 m by 35 m. What is its area?

A. 1,480 m² B. 1,580 m² C. 1,620 m² D. 1,680 m²

Correct answer: D

48 x 35 = 1,680 m².

15. A trainee scores 18 out of 24 on a timed quiz. What percentage is this?

A. 70% B. 75% C. 80% D. 85%

Correct answer: B

18 / 24 = 0.75 = 75%.

16. A mechanic discounts a £250 tool kit by 12% in a store sale. What is the sale price?

A. £212 B. £215 C. £220 D. £230

Correct answer: C

12% of £250 = £30. Sale price: £250 - £30 = £220.

Work rate (questions 17-23)

17. Technician A completes a wiring check in 6 hours alone. Technician B completes the same check in 3 hours alone. How long do they take working together at constant rates?

A. 1 hour B. 1.5 hours C. 2.5 hours D. 2 hours

Correct answer: D

Combined rate: 1/6 + 1/3 = 1/6 + 2/6 = 1/2 job per hour, so time = 2 hours.

18. A packing team fills 90 crates in 4.5 hours. At the same rate, how many crates would they fill in 6 hours?

A. 120 B. 108 C. 135 D. 150

Correct answer: A

Rate: 90 / 4.5 = 20 crates per hour. In 6 hours: 20 x 6 = 120.

19. Printer X produces 40 information sheets per minute. Printer Y produces 25 per minute. Working together, how many minutes are needed for 780 sheets?

A. 10 minutes B. 12 minutes C. 14 minutes D. 15 minutes

Correct answer: B

Combined: 40 + 25 = 65 sheets per minute. 780 / 65 = 12 minutes.

20. Three identical pumps empty a tank in 8 hours. How long would two of the same pumps take to empty the same tank, assuming constant equal rates and no other losses?

A. 10 hours B. 11 hours C. 12 hours D. 14 hours

Correct answer: C

Three pumps: total work = 24 pump-hours. Two pumps: 24 / 2 = 12 hours.

21. Cadet Lee reads briefing pages at 12 pages per hour. Cadet Morgan reads at 18 pages per hour. They share one 54-page brief and work continuously together at these rates. How long until the brief is finished?

A. 1.5 hours B. 2.5 hours C. 3 hours D. 1.8 hours

Correct answer: D

Combined rate: 12 + 18 = 30 pages per hour. 54 / 30 = 1.8 hours.

22. A workshop paints 15 helmets in 2 hours with 3 staff working at equal constant rates. How long would 5 staff take to paint 50 helmets at the same per-person rate?

A. 4 hours B. 5 hours C. 6 hours D. 8 hours

Correct answer: A

One staff rate: 15 / (2 x 3) = 2.5 helmets per hour. Five staff: 12.5 helmets per hour. Time for 50: 50 / 12.5 = 4 hours.

23. Hose A fills a cistern in 10 hours. Hose B fills it in 15 hours. After both run together for 3 hours, Hose A is turned off. How many more hours does Hose B need alone to finish?

A. 6.0 hours B. 7.5 hours C. 8.0 hours D. 9.0 hours

Correct answer: B

In 3 hours together: 3/10 + 3/15 = 0.3 + 0.2 = 0.5 of the cistern. Remaining half takes Hose B 0.5 x 15 = 7.5 hours.

Spatial reasoning (questions 24-31)

24. A flat cardboard net of an open-top box (a square base with four square walls attached to its four edges) is folded into a 3D tray without a lid. After folding, which statement is correct?

A. The four wall squares form a closed cube with a top face. B. Opposite walls never touch each other along any edge. C. Adjacent wall squares meet each other along shared upright edges. D. The base square becomes a side face of the finished shape.

Correct answer: C

In an open box folded from that net, neighbouring walls meet along vertical edges; there is no top face.

25. A shape is rotated 90 degrees clockwise in the plane. A right-angled arrow that pointed up now points where?

A. Up B. Down C. Left D. Right

Correct answer: D

A 90-degree clockwise turn sends an upward direction to the right.

26. Which 2D silhouette is rotationally symmetric by 180 degrees about its centre?

A. The capital letter S (standard block form without serifs) B. The capital letter L C. The capital letter F D. The capital letter P

Correct answer: A

A standard block S looks the same after a 180-degree turn; L, F and P do not.

27. Imagine a cube sitting on a table. You paint the top face red, then rotate the cube 90 degrees forward (the top face moves to become the front face). Where is the red face now?

A. On the bottom B. Facing the front (towards you) C. Still on top D. Facing the back

Correct answer: B

Tilting the cube forward moves the former top face into the front position.

28. A patterned tile shows a triangle pointing right. After a reflection in a vertical mirror line through its centre, which description fits?

A. The triangle still points right. B. The triangle points up. C. The triangle points left. D. The triangle points down.

Correct answer: C

A vertical mirror reverses left and right, so a right-pointing triangle becomes left-pointing.

29. Four identical isosceles right-angled triangular tiles are arranged so that each hypotenuse faces outward and the short sides meet at the centre. What larger shape do they form?

A. A pentagon B. A hexagon C. An octagon D. A square

Correct answer: D

Meeting the short sides at the centre places the four hypotenuses as the outer edges of a square.

30. A 3D object has 6 faces, 12 edges and 8 vertices, and every face is a square. What is the object?

A. A cube B. A triangular prism C. A cylinder D. A square-based pyramid

Correct answer: A

Those counts and square faces describe a cube.

31. Viewed from above, a block letter T is drawn on a transparent sheet. The sheet is flipped over a horizontal axis (top edge swaps with bottom edge), then viewed from the same side. What best describes the result?

A. An upright T unchanged B. An upside-down T (stem pointing up, crossbar at the bottom) C. A mirror T pointing sideways D. A letter L

Correct answer: B

A flip over a horizontal axis inverts top and bottom, turning an upright T upside down.

Electrical comprehension (questions 32-38)

32. In a simple series circuit with one battery and three identical resistors, what is true of the current?

A. The current is largest through the resistor nearest the battery positive terminal. B. Each resistor takes a different current that cannot be predicted. C. The same current flows through each resistor. D. No current flows unless the resistors are in parallel.

Correct answer: C

In series there is a single path, so the current is the same at every resistor.

33. What does a fuse primarily provide in a domestic or workshop circuit?

A. Overcurrent protection by melting and breaking the circuit when current is too high B. Voltage increase for starting motors C. Continuous energy storage like a battery D. Permanent short-circuiting of the live conductor

Correct answer: A

A fuse is a sacrificial overcurrent protective device that opens the circuit when its rating is exceeded.

34. Which quantity is measured in ohms?

A. Electric charge B. Electric current C. Electric power D. Electrical resistance

Correct answer: D

Resistance is measured in ohms.

35. Ohm’s law for a purely resistive component can be written as V = I x R. If a component has resistance 20 ohms and a current of 0.5 A, what is the voltage across it?

A. 5 V B. 10 V C. 20 V D. 40 V

Correct answer: B

V = 0.5 x 20 = 10 V.

36. Two identical lamps are connected in parallel across a battery. Compared with one lamp alone across the same battery, what happens to the total current drawn from the battery (ideal wires, identical lamps)?

A. Total current halves B. Total current stays exactly the same C. Total current roughly doubles D. Total current becomes zero

Correct answer: C

Parallel identical loads provide a second similar path, approximately doubling the total current from the battery.

37. Which material is generally the best electrical conductor among the following?

A. Copper B. Dry wood C. Glass D. Rubber

Correct answer: A

Copper is a metallic conductor; dry wood, glass and rubber are typically insulators.

38. A circuit has a 12 V battery and a single resistor of 6 ohms. What is the current?

A. 0.5 A B. 1 A C. 18 A D. 2 A

Correct answer: D

I = V / R = 12 / 6 = 2 A.

Mechanical comprehension (questions 39-45)

39. A first-class lever has the fulcrum between the effort and the load. Which everyday tool is a first-class lever?

A. A wheelbarrow B. A pair of scissors (each blade about the shared pivot) C. A bottle opener used as a second-class lever on a bottle cap D. A human forearm lifting a weight held in the hand

Correct answer: B

Scissors place the pivot between the handles (effort) and the cutting edges (load), which is first-class lever behaviour.

40. If the effort arm of a lever is longer than the load arm, what is the usual mechanical advantage for lifting a heavy load slowly?

A. Mechanical advantage less than 1 B. Mechanical advantage exactly 0 C. Mechanical advantage greater than 1 D. No mechanical advantage is possible with any lever

Correct answer: C

A longer effort arm than load arm gives mechanical advantage greater than 1.

41. Gear A has 20 teeth and drives Gear B with 40 teeth. If Gear A turns clockwise at 120 rpm, what is Gear B’s speed and direction (external mesh, no idler)?

A. 240 rpm clockwise B. 240 rpm anticlockwise C. 60 rpm clockwise D. 60 rpm anticlockwise

Correct answer: D

Speed ratio is inverse to teeth: 120 x (20/40) = 60 rpm. External mesh reverses direction, so anticlockwise.

42. A pulley system with a mechanical advantage of 4 is used to lift a 200 N load at constant speed (ignore friction). What ideal effort is required?

A. 50 N B. 100 N C. 200 N D. 800 N

Correct answer: A

Ideal effort = load / MA = 200 / 4 = 50 N.

43. Which change increases the pressure a rectangular stamp applies to an ink pad when the downward force is kept constant?

A. Increasing the stamp face area B. Decreasing the stamp face area C. Lengthening the stamp handle without changing area or force D. Using a softer ink pad only

Correct answer: B

Pressure = force / area, so a smaller contact area raises pressure for the same force.

44. A mass rests on a rough horizontal surface. Static friction is just enough to stop it sliding when a 30 N horizontal force is applied. If the horizontal force is reduced to 10 N and the mass remains at rest, what can be said?

A. Friction must be exactly 0 N B. Friction must be exactly 30 N C. Friction adjusts to 10 N (balancing the applied force) while the mass stays at rest D. Friction must reverse and push the mass forward

Correct answer: C

While at rest, static friction matches the applied horizontal force up to its maximum, so it equals 10 N here.

45. Two children sit on a seesaw. Child A (30 kg) sits 2 m from the pivot. Where should Child B (20 kg) sit, on the other side, for balance (take g the same for both and ignore board mass)?

A. 2.0 m from the pivot B. 2.5 m from the pivot C. 3.5 m from the pivot D. 3.0 m from the pivot

Correct answer: D

Moments: 30 x 2 = 60. For Child B: 20 x d = 60, so d = 3.0 m from the pivot.

Official resources

• RAF Recruitment: Defence Aptitude Assessment (DAA) familiarisation
• RAF DAA familiarisation test
• RAF enlisted aviators application process
• Royal Navy: Defence Aptitude Assessment (naval-service DAA context)

Related guides

• UK Assessment Tests
• Army Cognitive Test (ACT) (British Army soldier pathway; different battery)
• AOSB Assessment (Army officer selection; different pathway)
• Military Aptitude Tests (US ASVAB family; different jurisdiction)
• Mechanical Aptitude Tests
• Numerical Reasoning
• Verbal Reasoning
• Spatial Reasoning

FAQ

Next steps

1. Complete official DAA familiarisation for your service.
2. Confirm delivery method and role expectations with your recruiter or AFCO.
3. Practise the six skill families under timed conditions.
4. Use third-party drills only as optional extras.

Return to the UK Assessment Tests hub for more British employer, public-service and graduate-scheme guides.