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If you are applying to nursing or allied health programs, you may be asked to take the ATI TEAS. Version 7 is a broad academic-readiness assessment covering Reading, Math, Science, and English and Language Usage. Many schools use it as one admissions consideration, but ATI does not decide admission. Each program sets its own score expectations, deadlines and retake rules.
Key takeaway: confirm the live format on ATI’s exam-details page, then build a section-by-section study plan around your program’s requirements. The questions below are original practice items for skill review, not official ATI content or an admissions forecast.
The 45 questions on this page are original educational practice questions. They are not official ATI questions, and completing them does not predict admission or an ATI TEAS score.
Current ATI TEAS Version 7 format
ATI states that Version 7 has 170 total questions and 209 minutes of allocated testing time. Of those, 150 questions are scored and 20 are unscored pretest items. Candidates cannot tell which items are pretest questions, so every item should be answered carefully. Each section has its own timer, which makes section-specific pacing important.
| Section | Questions | Time limit | Unscored pretest items | Main focus |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Reading | 45 | 55 minutes | 6 | Key ideas, craft and structure, and integration of knowledge and ideas |
| Math | 38 | 57 minutes | 4 | Numbers and algebra, measurement and data |
| Science | 50 | 60 minutes | 6 | Anatomy and physiology, biology, chemistry, and scientific reasoning |
| English and Language Usage | 37 | 37 minutes | 4 | Standard English, language knowledge, and effective writing |
| Total | 170 | 209 minutes | 20 | Four separately timed sections |
Question formats may include multiple choice, multiple select, fill-in-the-blank, ordered response, and hot spots. For the current format, content areas and registration routes, see ATI TEAS exam details. Registration may be completed online or in person through ATI, an institution, or PSI, but the required route depends on the school. Check your program’s instructions before booking.
There is no universal ATI TEAS passing score. Nursing and allied health programs set their own thresholds, so confirm the current requirement directly with every school you are considering. For calculator and exam-day guidance, follow ATI’s current administration rules and your school’s instructions. ATI’s official calculator help page states that personal calculators may not be used. An on-screen calculator is built into the computer-based exam, while a calculator is provided by the proctor for paper-and-pencil testing. If your administration details differ, follow ATI and the school rather than a secondary summary.
How to study the four sections
Reading questions reward disciplined use of the passage. Identify the central claim, notice how evidence is organised, and distinguish what the text says directly from what it reasonably implies. If two answers seem plausible, return to the exact words and ask which option has the strongest support.
The Math section is not a test of advanced mathematics. Build confidence with fractions, percentages, ratios, algebraic relationships, unit conversions, measurement, and data interpretation. Practise with the type of calculator permitted for your administration, not a personal device.
Science preparation should prioritize relationships rather than isolated facts. Connect structures to functions in anatomy and physiology, review core biology and chemistry concepts, and practice interpreting simple experimental scenarios. When a question describes evidence, separate the observation from the conclusion that the evidence supports.
The English and Language Usage section tests more than spelling. Review sentence boundaries, subject-verb agreement, pronouns, punctuation, word choice, paragraph flow, and concise revision. Read each option aloud silently if that helps you hear a fragment, awkward modifier, or disagreement.
If your program lists another nursing entrance exam instead of TEAS, check whether it requires the NLN NEX. TEAS and NEX are separate products with different publishers, blueprints and score reports. Preparation for one does not automatically transfer to the other.
Optional third-party practice
After you have reviewed ATI’s current official guidance and your program’s admissions requirements, some candidates want extra timed drills. One independent option is ATI TEAS practice materials from TestPrep-Online.
TestPrep-Online is an independent third-party preparation provider. It is not ATI, an official ATI TEAS publisher or administrator, a nursing school, a university, a healthcare provider, or an admissions authority. Its practice questions, guides, tests, and reports are independent preparation materials, not official ATI TEAS content. Check the current price, access period, and included materials on the provider’s website before buying. Preparation materials cannot guarantee a score improvement, admission decision, or place on a nursing or allied health program.
Practice questions
Reading questions
1. A hospital newsletter states: “After the ward introduced a quiet hour each afternoon, patients reported fewer interruptions during rest periods. Staff also recorded fewer non-urgent call-bell requests during that hour.” Which conclusion is best supported by the information?
A. Quiet hours eliminate all patient call-bell requests. B. The quiet hour may have supported a calmer rest period for some patients. C. Staff members prefer working without patients present. D. Every ward should use the same schedule regardless of patient needs.
Correct answer: B Explanation: The newsletter reports fewer interruptions and fewer non-urgent requests during the quiet hour, which supports a cautious conclusion about a calmer environment. It does not prove that all requests disappeared or that one schedule suits every ward.
2. Read the sentence: “The committee postponed its decision until it had reviewed the updated infection-control data.” What is the most likely reason for the postponement?
A. The committee had already rejected the data. B. The committee did not consider infection control relevant. C. The committee intended to make a decision without reviewing information. D. The committee wanted current evidence before deciding.
Correct answer: D Explanation: The phrase “until it had reviewed” shows that the data were needed before the decision could be made. The sentence gives no indication that the data were rejected or irrelevant.
3. A writer describes a new appointment system as “promising, although its effect on waiting times should be measured over several months.” What is the writer’s tone?
A. Positive but cautious B. Indifferent and dismissive C. Humorous and playful D. Certain that the system has failed
Correct answer: A Explanation: Calling the system “promising” is positive, while requesting measurement over time introduces caution. The writer is not claiming a final result.
4. In a passage, the author first explains how dehydration affects concentration, then lists practical ways to drink fluids regularly. How is the passage mainly organised?
A. Problem and solution B. Comparison and contrast between two studies C. Cause and effect followed by recommendations D. Chronological biography of a researcher
Correct answer: C Explanation: The first part links dehydration to an effect on concentration, and the second part gives advice. That sequence is cause and effect followed by recommendations.
5. A report says that a clinic reduced missed appointments after sending reminder texts. Which additional evidence would most strengthen the claim that the texts contributed to the reduction?
A. A list of the clinic’s opening hours B. A photograph of the clinic reception area C. A comparison of missed-appointment rates before and after reminders were introduced D. A statement that staff like using mobile phones
Correct answer: C Explanation: Comparing relevant rates before and after the change provides direct evidence about the claimed outcome. The other options do not measure missed appointments.
6. Read the sentence: “Mina placed the labelled samples in the refrigerator before leaving the laboratory.” What does “labelled” most nearly mean in this context?
A. Decorated for display B. Marked with identifying information C. Measured at a low temperature D. Removed from their containers
Correct answer: B Explanation: Samples are labelled so they can be identified and handled correctly. The context concerns laboratory organisation, not decoration or refrigeration.
7. A leaflet explains the purpose of a vaccination clinic, gives opening times, and tells readers how to book. What is the leaflet’s primary purpose?
A. To entertain readers with a personal story B. To persuade readers that all illnesses are preventable C. To compare the clinic with every healthcare provider in the area D. To inform readers about a service and how to use it
Correct answer: D Explanation: The practical details about purpose, times, and booking show an informational purpose. The leaflet is helping readers access a service.
8. A researcher writes, “The first trial involved only 24 volunteers, so its results should not be treated as conclusive.” Which statement best restates the sentence?
A. The trial provides limited evidence that needs further investigation. B. The trial proves the treatment works for everyone. C. The volunteers were not given any treatment. D. The researcher believes small studies are always useless.
Correct answer: A Explanation: A small trial can offer useful information, but the researcher warns against drawing final conclusions from it. The sentence does not say the study was useless or universally conclusive.
9. In the sentence “The radiographer explained the procedure to the patient because she appeared anxious,” who does “she” most likely refer to?
A. The procedure B. The radiographer’s explanation C. The patient D. The imaging equipment
Correct answer: C Explanation: The patient is the person most plausibly described as appearing anxious in this context. A procedure or equipment cannot appear anxious.
10. Which source would be most appropriate for checking whether a nursing programme has a required minimum ATI TEAS score?
A. The programme’s current admissions webpage or admissions office B. An anonymous online discussion post C. A social-media advertisement for a study guide D. A general article about nursing careers from several years ago
Correct answer: A Explanation: Entry requirements are set by individual programmes and can change. The programme’s official admissions information is the most reliable place to confirm its current expectation.
11. A paragraph begins, “Hand hygiene is one of the simplest ways to reduce the spread of infection.” Which sentence would best support that main idea?
A. Some soap dispensers are mounted beside sinks. B. Proper hand hygiene can remove or reduce many microbes before they are transferred to another surface or person. C. Hospitals use different colours for staff uniforms. D. Many people wash their hands before eating meals.
Correct answer: B Explanation: This option explains how hand hygiene can reduce transmission, directly supporting the main idea. The other details may be true but do not establish the mechanism.
12. An article presents a table showing that the average time needed to complete a task fell from 18 minutes to 12 minutes after staff training. Which statement is justified?
A. The average completion time was lower after the training period. B. Training was unnecessary because the task was already quick. C. Every individual completed the task in exactly 12 minutes. D. The table proves training will work in every workplace.
Correct answer: A Explanation: The table supports a change in the average from 18 to 12 minutes. It does not establish identical individual times or guarantee the same result elsewhere.
Math questions
13. A student answers 36 of 45 practice questions correctly. What percentage is correct?
A. 80% B. 75% C. 78% D. 90%
Correct answer: A Explanation: Divide 36 by 45 to get 0.8, then multiply by 100. The result is 80%.
14. Solve for (x): (5x - 9 = 26).
A. 7 B. 5 C. 35 D. 17
Correct answer: A Explanation: Add 9 to both sides to get (5x = 35). Dividing by 5 gives (x = 7).
15. A solution is mixed using 2 parts concentrate and 5 parts water. What fraction of the final mixture is concentrate?
A. 2/5 B. 5/7 C. 1/2 D. 2/7
Correct answer: D Explanation: The mixture has 7 total parts: 2 parts concentrate plus 5 parts water. Therefore, concentrate makes up 2/7 of the mixture.
16. A rectangular noticeboard is 1.8 metres long and 0.9 metres wide. What is its area?
A. 2.7 square metres B. 0.9 square metres C. 1.62 square metres D. 5.4 square metres
Correct answer: C Explanation: Area equals length multiplied by width. Multiplying 1.8 by 0.9 gives 1.62 square metres.
17. Convert 2.75 litres to millilitres.
A. 275 mL B. 27.5 mL C. 2,750 mL D. 27,500 mL
Correct answer: C Explanation: One litre equals 1,000 millilitres. Multiply 2.75 by 1,000 to obtain 2,750 mL.
18. The mean of five quiz scores is 74. Four of the scores are 68, 70, 74, and 80. What is the fifth score?
A. 68 B. 78 C. 70 D. 72
Correct answer: B Explanation: A mean of 74 across five scores gives a total of 370. The four known scores total 292, so the remaining score is 78.
19. A 48-pound textbook is reduced by 25%. What is the sale price?
A. 24 pounds B. 36 pounds C. 12 pounds D. 42 pounds
Correct answer: B Explanation: Twenty-five percent of 48 pounds is 12 pounds. Subtracting 12 pounds from 48 pounds gives a sale price of 36 pounds.
20. Which ratio is equivalent to 3:8?
A. 6:13 B. 9:16 C. 15:32 D. 12:32
Correct answer: D Explanation: Equivalent ratios multiply both terms by the same number. Multiplying 3:8 by 4 gives 12:32.
21. A chart shows 18 students in Group A, 24 in Group B, and 30 in Group C. What fraction of all students are in Group B?
A. 2/5 B. 1/3 C. 1/2 D. 1/4
Correct answer: B Explanation: There are 72 students in total. Group B has 24 of 72 students, and 24/72 simplifies to 1/3.
22. A patient drinks 240 mL of water every hour for 6 hours. How much water is consumed?
A. 960 mL B. 1,440 mL C. 1,200 mL D. 1,680 mL
Correct answer: B Explanation: Multiply 240 mL by 6 hours. The total is 1,440 mL.
23. The temperature rises from 18 degrees to 27 degrees. By what percentage has the temperature increased relative to the original temperature?
A. 33.3% B. 9% C. 50% D. 150%
Correct answer: C Explanation: The increase is 9 degrees. Divide 9 by the original 18 to get 0.5, or 50%.
24. Solve the inequality (3y + 4 < 19).
A. (y < 4) B. (y > 5) C. (y > 4) D. (y < 5)
Correct answer: D Explanation: Subtract 4 from both sides to get (3y < 15). Dividing by 3 gives (y < 5).
Science questions
25. Which structure is the main site of gas exchange between air and blood in the lungs?
A. Bronchi B. Trachea C. Alveoli D. Diaphragm
Correct answer: C Explanation: Alveoli are tiny air sacs with thin walls and close contact with capillaries, allowing oxygen and carbon dioxide to diffuse. The bronchi and trachea mainly conduct air, while the diaphragm helps breathing movements.
26. Which organ filters blood, removes wastes, and helps regulate water balance?
A. Liver B. Kidneys C. Pancreas D. Stomach
Correct answer: B Explanation: The kidneys filter blood and form urine, contributing to fluid and electrolyte balance. The liver, pancreas, and stomach have important but different roles.
27. What is the primary role of red blood cells?
A. Produce digestive enzymes in the small intestine B. Transport oxygen using haemoglobin C. Transmit electrical signals through the spinal cord D. Form antibodies against pathogens
Correct answer: B Explanation: Red blood cells contain haemoglobin, which binds and carries oxygen. White blood cells are more directly involved in immune defence.
28. In an experiment, a scientist changes only the amount of light received by identical plants and measures their growth. What is the independent variable?
A. The height of each plant at the end B. The type of ruler used for measurement C. The amount of light received D. The conclusion about plant growth
Correct answer: C Explanation: The independent variable is the factor deliberately changed by the researcher. Here, that factor is the amount of light.
29. Which statement best describes osmosis?
A. Movement of proteins from low to high pressure B. Movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane C. Movement of oxygen through the lungs only D. Production of glucose from sunlight in animal cells
Correct answer: B Explanation: Osmosis is the movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane. It is a key process in maintaining fluid balance around cells.
30. Which body system produces hormones that help regulate processes such as growth and metabolism?
A. Endocrine system B. Skeletal system C. Integumentary system D. Lymphatic system
Correct answer: A Explanation: The endocrine system includes glands that release hormones into the bloodstream. These chemical messengers regulate many body functions.
31. A solution with a pH of 3 is best described as:
A. Neutral B. Basic C. Saturated D. Acidic
Correct answer: D Explanation: A pH below 7 is acidic, while a pH above 7 is basic. A pH of 7 is neutral.
32. What is the main function of ribosomes in a cell?
A. Store genetic information B. Control movement of substances across the cell membrane C. Build proteins D. Break down blood cells
Correct answer: C Explanation: Ribosomes assemble amino acids into proteins using genetic instructions. The nucleus stores much of the cell’s genetic material, while the cell membrane regulates entry and exit.
33. Which change is most likely a chemical change?
A. Ice melting in a glass B. Salt dissolving in water C. Iron forming rust after exposure to oxygen and water D. Paper being cut into smaller pieces
Correct answer: C Explanation: Rusting produces new substances through a chemical reaction involving iron, oxygen, and water. Melting, dissolving, and cutting do not necessarily create a new substance.
34. Which blood component plays a central role in forming clots after a cut?
A. Plasma proteins only B. Red blood cells C. Platelets D. Nerve cells
Correct answer: C Explanation: Platelets gather at damaged blood vessels and help start the clotting process. They work with clotting factors in plasma to limit blood loss.
35. A researcher repeats an experiment several times and obtains similar results. Why is repetition valuable?
A. It ensures the hypothesis is always correct. B. It removes the need for a control group. C. It proves that no errors were possible. D. It increases confidence that the findings are reliable.
Correct answer: D Explanation: Repeated similar results make it less likely that a finding occurred by chance or a one-off error. Repetition does not guarantee that every aspect of a study is correct.
36. Which statement about enzymes is accurate?
A. They act as catalysts that can speed up specific reactions. B. They are used up completely after one reaction. C. They slow every chemical reaction in the body. D. They carry oxygen from the lungs to body tissues.
Correct answer: A Explanation: Enzymes are biological catalysts that help reactions occur more efficiently. Their shape and active site help them interact with particular substances.
English and Language Usage questions
37. Which sentence uses correct subject-verb agreement?
A. The results of the survey shows a clear pattern. B. The nurse and the doctor discusses the plan. C. Each of the students have submitted a form. D. The list of required documents is on the website.
Correct answer: D Explanation: The subject of the sentence is “list”, which is singular, so “is” is correct. The other sentences use verbs that do not agree with their subjects.
38. Which revision is the clearest and most concise?
A. Due to the fact that several team members were unavailable, the meeting was postponed by the team. B. The team postponed the meeting because several members were unavailable. C. The meeting, which was a meeting for the team, had to be postponed because of unavailability. D. Several team members being unavailable was the reason for the postponement of the meeting.
Correct answer: B Explanation: This sentence states the action and reason directly with no unnecessary repetition. The other options are longer and more indirect.
39. Which sentence uses punctuation correctly?
A. Before the lecture began the students, found their seats. B. Before, the lecture began the students found their seats. C. Before the lecture, began the students found their seats. D. Before the lecture began, the students found their seats.
Correct answer: D Explanation: An introductory dependent clause is followed by a comma before the independent clause. The comma should not interrupt the subject and verb.
40. Choose the sentence with correct pronoun use.
A. The adviser spoke with Maya and me after class. B. The tutor gave the study guide to Maya and I. C. Him and Jordan reviewed the notes together. D. Between you and I, the timetable is difficult.
Correct answer: A Explanation: After a preposition such as “with”, the object pronoun “me” is correct. The same principle applies after “between”.
41. Which sentence avoids a misplaced modifier?
A. Walking through the corridor, the posters caught Elena’s attention. B. To improve accuracy, the calculations were checked by the student. C. After studying for two hours, the exam was less intimidating. D. After studying for two hours, Elena found the exam less intimidating.
Correct answer: D Explanation: Elena is the person who studied, and she immediately follows the introductory phrase. In the other choices, the grammar incorrectly suggests that posters, calculations, or the exam did the studying.
42. Which word best completes the sentence? “The clinician asked the patient to ___ the medication label carefully.”
A. reed B. red C. rid D. read
Correct answer: D Explanation: “Read” is the verb needed after “to”. “Red” is a colour, while the other spellings do not fit the sentence.
43. Which sentence is a complete sentence rather than a fragment?
A. The samples were placed in the refrigerator before the laboratory closed. B. Although the laboratory was closed for cleaning. C. Because the samples required refrigeration. D. While waiting for the supervisor to arrive.
Correct answer: A Explanation: This option contains a subject and a complete predicate, expressing a full thought. The other options begin dependent clauses that need an independent clause to be complete.
44. Which transition best completes the sentence? “The first practice test identified weak areas in fractions. ___, the student scheduled extra review sessions on that topic.”
A. However B. For example C. Therefore D. Similarly
Correct answer: C Explanation: The extra review sessions are a result of identifying a weakness, so “Therefore” shows the correct logical relationship. The other transitions signal contrast, illustration, or similarity.
45. Which sentence uses parallel structure?
A. The course requires students to read assigned chapters, complete quizzes, and attend workshops. B. The course requires students to read assigned chapters, completing quizzes, and that they attend workshops. C. The course requires students reading assigned chapters, to complete quizzes, and attending workshops. D. The course requires students to read assigned chapters, quizzes must be completed, and workshop attendance.
Correct answer: A Explanation: The three required actions use matching infinitive verbs: “to read”, “complete”, and “attend”. Parallel structure makes a list easier to read and understand.
Answer key
| # | Answer |
|---|---|
| 1 | B |
| 2 | D |
| 3 | A |
| 4 | C |
| 5 | C |
| 6 | B |
| 7 | D |
| 8 | A |
| 9 | C |
| 10 | A |
| 11 | B |
| 12 | A |
| 13 | A |
| 14 | A |
| 15 | D |
| 16 | C |
| 17 | C |
| 18 | B |
| 19 | B |
| 20 | D |
| 21 | B |
| 22 | B |
| 23 | C |
| 24 | D |
| 25 | C |
| 26 | B |
| 27 | B |
| 28 | C |
| 29 | B |
| 30 | A |
| 31 | D |
| 32 | C |
| 33 | C |
| 34 | C |
| 35 | D |
| 36 | A |
| 37 | D |
| 38 | B |
| 39 | D |
| 40 | A |
| 41 | D |
| 42 | D |
| 43 | A |
| 44 | C |
| 45 | A |
Unofficial practice bands
These bands apply only to the 45 original questions on this page. They are not ATI score categories, percentiles, cut scores, admissions decisions, or a substitute for your program’s requirements.
| Correct answers out of 45 | Unofficial interpretation |
|---|---|
| 0-17 | Rebuild core knowledge and review every explanation before increasing speed. |
| 18-29 | Developing understanding. Identify the section or question type that needs the most attention. |
| 30-38 | Solid practice performance. Continue working on pacing and weaker content areas. |
| 39-45 | Strong performance on this sample. Continue with mixed, timed practice and confirm program requirements. |
FAQ
Is there a universal ATI TEAS pass score?
No. ATI TEAS scores are not governed by one universal passing score for all candidates. Nursing and allied health programs set their own admissions standards, score expectations, retake policies, and deadlines. Confirm the current requirements directly with every program you are considering.
Are all 170 ATI TEAS questions scored?
No. ATI identifies unscored pretest questions within the Version 7 sections. Because the unscored items are not identified during the assessment, answer every question as carefully as possible.
Can I use my own calculator?
No. ATI says personal calculators may not be used. For online testing, a calculator is built into the exam interface; for paper-and-pencil testing, the proctor provides a calculator.
Are the questions on this page official ATI TEAS questions?
No. They are original practice questions designed for academic revision. Use ATI’s current official materials and your program’s guidance for authoritative exam and admissions information.
Related guides
Next steps
- Confirm that your target program requires the ATI TEAS and check its current score, deadline, and retake rules.
- Review the official ATI exam details, then make a section-by-section study plan.
- Use timed practice to identify whether Reading, Math, Science, or English and Language Usage needs the most attention.
- Practise Math with the type of provided calculator permitted by ATI, not a personal calculator.
- Treat commercial preparation materials as optional support, and verify their current terms before purchasing.