We may earn a commission from some links on this page. Recommendations remain editorially independent.

If a nursing program asks for an entrance exam, confirm whether it means the NLN Nursing Entrance Exam (NEX). NEX is an admissions assessment from NLN Assessment Services. It measures academic skills in verbal ability, mathematics and science that nursing programs may consider alongside their own admissions requirements. It is not the ATI TEAS, and NLN does not decide admission for you.

Key takeaway: use your school’s current instructions and the live NLN technical documents before you choose study resources. The NEX name replaces older PAX branding in current NLN materials, but legacy references and third-party pack titles may still say PAX.

The 45 questions below are original educational exercises. They are not NLN questions, recalled questions, or a prediction of a particular school’s admissions test.

What NEX measures

NLN describes the verbal section as word knowledge and reading comprehension at high-school or early-college level. The math section covers foundational computation and mathematics, including numbers and operations, measurement, algebra, and data and information. The science section draws on general principles of chemistry, biology, anatomy, physiology and health.

That description is useful for planning, but it is not a substitute for your program’s own guidance. A nursing school may require a particular attempt, deadline, testing route or score report, so check its current admissions page first.

Topic Current NLN technical framing - verify live
Assessment NLN Nursing Entrance Exam (NEX)
Main areas Verbal ability, mathematics and science
Verbal ability 58 presented items, including 50 operational items
Mathematics 45 presented items, including 40 operational items
Science 60 presented items, including 55 operational items
Timing About 60 minutes for each section
Reporting Percentile context may be reported against RN and LPN/VN norm groups
Admissions use Schools set their own cut scores and selection rules

The figures above follow the current NLN Assessment Services NEX Technical Brief 2025 and the NEX Technical Manual (21 March 2024). Those documents describe presented item totals that include operational and pretest items, with only operational items contributing to the score. Programme instructions and any later NLN Assessment Services update control. Do not try to identify pretest items during the assessment; answer every question carefully.

NEX, PAX, TEAS and other entrance exams

NEX is the current NLN naming. You may still see PAX, Pre-Admission Exam or older PAX-format references in school documents, study-pack titles or search results. Confirm whether the school means the current NEX assessment and whether any legacy reference has been updated. Do not treat an old PAX format description as the live NEX blueprint.

ATI TEAS and HESI Admission Assessment are separate nursing-admissions products with their own publishers, content plans and score reports. Do not assume a preparation pack, practice score or cut score for one assessment applies to another. If a program simply says “entrance exam”, ask the admissions office which named assessment it requires.

NEX score reports can provide percentile comparisons for RN and LPN/VN norm groups. A percentile describes how a result compares with the relevant reference group; it is not a percentage of questions answered correctly and is not an automatic admission decision. There is no universal passing score for NEX. Each nursing program can establish local cut scores and can weigh test results with prerequisites, grades, interviews, deadlines or other criteria. Ask the program which norm group, score measure and reporting date it uses.

How to prepare

Start by confirming that your program requires NEX, not a legacy PAX administration or a different exam such as TEAS or HESI. Download or read the current school instructions and current NLN NEX technical material before choosing study resources.

Review weak foundations steadily: vocabulary and reading, fractions and proportions, algebra basics, graphs, biology, chemistry, anatomy and physiology. Practise timing in short blocks. The NEX Technical Brief 2025 states that each subject test is timed at 60 minutes, but your school and live testing information control. On test day, read directions closely, answer every item and avoid spending so long on one difficult question that easier questions go unanswered.

Optional third-party practice

After you have checked the live NLN blueprint and your program’s admissions rules, some candidates want extra drills for verbal, math and science question types. One independent option is NLN test practice materials from TestPrep-Online.

TestPrep-Online is an independent third-party preparation provider. It is not the National League for Nursing, an NLN Assessment Services provider, a nursing school, a healthcare institution, or an official test administrator. Product metadata may still use the former PAX name, so verify that the pack currently covers NEX before purchase. Its questions, practice tests, guides and reports are independent preparation materials. Check the current price, access terms and pack contents on the product page before purchase. Preparation cannot guarantee a score, admission decision, nursing-program placement or exam outcome.

NLN NEX practice questions

These original exercises are for educational familiarization only. They do not reproduce NLN content, do not establish readiness for admission, and do not reveal operational or pretest items.

Verbal ability practice

1. In the sentence, “The nurse gave a concise explanation of the procedure,” what does “concise” most nearly mean?

A. Difficult to understand B. Emotionally detached C. Repeated several times D. Brief and clear

Correct answer: D Explanation: “Concise” means expressed in few words without losing clarity. The sentence says the explanation was brief and understandable, not vague or repeated.

2. Which word is the best antonym for “scarce” in the sentence, “Clean water was scarce after the storm”?

A. Plentiful B. Essential C. Polluted D. Transported

Correct answer: A Explanation: “Scarce” means in short supply. “Plentiful” has the opposite meaning because it describes something available in large quantity.

3. Read the passage. “A student recorded her study sessions for two weeks. She found that reviewing notes for 20 minutes after each class was easier to maintain than attempting a long review on Sunday.” What is the main point?

A. Short, regular review sessions may be easier to sustain. B. Sunday is the best day to study. C. Students should stop taking notes in class. D. Two weeks is enough time to master any subject.

Correct answer: A Explanation: The passage contrasts a short routine after class with a long Sunday session. Its conclusion is about the practicality of regular, manageable review rather than a claim about one day or all subjects.

4. Which sentence uses “affect” correctly?

A. The medication may have an affect on appetite. B. The patient’s affect was to improve sleep. C. The new policy had a calm affect. D. The medication may affect appetite.

Correct answer: D Explanation: As a verb, “affect” means to influence. In this sentence it correctly describes the possible influence of medication on appetite; the noun form is usually “effect”.

5. Read the passage. “The clinic moved appointment reminders from paper postcards to text messages. Missed appointments fell during the following three months, although the clinic could not prove that the reminder method alone caused the change.” Which statement is best supported?

A. Paper postcards always cause missed appointments. B. Text-message reminders were followed by fewer missed appointments. C. Text messages guarantee that patients attend. D. The clinic no longer needs to contact patients.

Correct answer: B Explanation: The passage reports a change in missed appointments after the reminder method changed. It explicitly avoids claiming that the messages alone caused the result, so the more limited statement is supported.

6. Which word best completes the sentence? “Before submitting the application, Maya checked that every required document was ____.”

A. optional B. included C. delayed D. misplaced

Correct answer: B Explanation: A required document needs to be present in the application. “Included” fits both the meaning and the grammar of the sentence.

7. In the sentence, “The instructor’s remarks were impartial,” “impartial” most nearly means:

A. highly detailed B. spoken quietly C. fair and not favouring one side D. difficult to remember

Correct answer: C Explanation: An impartial person does not favour one side over another. The word refers to fairness, not the length, volume or memorability of the remarks.

8. Read the passage. “A laboratory team labelled every sample before beginning the experiment. When one result appeared unexpected, the labels allowed the team to trace the sample’s handling history.” Why were the labels valuable?

A. They made the experiment take less time. B. They helped the team investigate an unusual result. C. They changed the result of the experiment. D. They eliminated the need for records.

Correct answer: B Explanation: The labels made it possible to trace the sample’s history after an unexpected result. Nothing in the passage says they altered results, replaced records or shortened the experiment.

9. Which word has the closest meaning to “reluctant”?

A. Prepared B. Hesitant C. Enthusiastic D. Certain

Correct answer: B Explanation: Someone who is reluctant is unwilling or hesitant. “Enthusiastic” is close to the opposite, while the other choices do not express hesitation.

10. Which sentence is punctuated correctly?

A. The instructor said “Please bring a calculator”. B. The instructor, said “Please bring a calculator.” C. The instructor said, “Please bring a calculator.” D. The instructor said “Please bring, a calculator.”

Correct answer: C Explanation: A direct quotation is introduced with a comma after “said”. The quoted sentence begins with a capital letter and its full stop appears within the closing quotation mark.

11. Read the passage. “The programme added an optional orientation session for applicants. Attendance was not required, but participants could ask questions about scheduling, identification and check-in procedures.” What can be inferred?

A. All applicants were required to attend. B. The session could help applicants understand practical arrangements. C. The orientation replaced the assessment. D. Participants received admission offers at the session.

Correct answer: B Explanation: The session addressed logistical questions about the assessment process. It was optional and the passage gives no reason to infer that it replaced testing or determined admission.

12. Choose the best revision of the sentence: “The results were reviewed by the committee, and the committee decided to request more information.”

A. The results were reviewed, and the committee decided to request more information. B. The committee reviewed the results, and the committee, decided more information. C. The results reviewed the committee, which requested more information. D. The committee had results, and more information was reviewed.

Correct answer: A Explanation: The revision removes an unnecessary repetition while keeping the original meaning. The committee remains the decision-maker, and the results remain what was reviewed.

13. In context, which transition best completes the sentence? “The first practice set exposed several gaps in fraction skills. ____, Jordan scheduled two short review sessions each week.”

A. Meanwhile B. For example C. Nevertheless D. Therefore

Correct answer: D Explanation: The review sessions are a response to the gaps identified in the practice set. “Therefore” clearly signals that cause-and-result relationship.

14. Read the passage. “A report compared two groups of students, one of which had access to a quiet study room. The group with access reported using it often, but the report did not measure exam scores.” Which claim should be avoided?

A. Some students reported using the room often. B. The room was available to one group. C. The quiet study room improved exam scores. D. The report did not measure exam scores.

Correct answer: C Explanation: The report did not collect exam-score data, so it cannot support a conclusion about score improvement. The other statements restate information given directly in the passage.

15. Which word best completes the sentence? “The adviser asked the applicant to ____ the deadline in a calendar so it would not be overlooked.”

A. record B. erase C. question D. postpone

Correct answer: A Explanation: Recording a deadline in a calendar is a practical way to remember it. The other verbs conflict with the goal of avoiding an overlooked deadline.

Mathematics practice

16. A student completes 18 of 24 assigned questions. What percentage of the questions has the student completed?

A. 60% B. 65% C. 70% D. 75%

Correct answer: D Explanation: Divide 18 by 24 to get 0.75. Converting 0.75 to a percentage gives 75%.

17. A bottle contains 750 mL of solution. How many litres is this?

A. 7.5 L B. 75 L C. 0.75 L D. 750 L

Correct answer: C Explanation: One litre equals 1,000 millilitres. Dividing 750 by 1,000 gives 0.75 litres.

18. A recipe uses 3/4 cup of oats for 6 servings. At the same rate, how many cups are needed for 12 servings?

A. 1 cup B. 1 1/2 cups C. 1 1/4 cups D. 2 cups

Correct answer: B Explanation: Twelve servings is twice six servings, so the ingredient amount also doubles. Twice 3/4 cup is 6/4 cups, which simplifies to 1 1/2 cups.

19. Solve for x: 4x + 7 = 31.

A. 6 B. 4 C. 8 D. 10

Correct answer: A Explanation: Subtract 7 from both sides to get 4x = 24. Dividing by 4 gives x = 6.

20. A clinic has 48 appointment slots. If 3/8 of the slots are reserved for follow-up visits, how many follow-up slots are reserved?

A. 18 B. 12 C. 15 D. 16

Correct answer: A Explanation: Find 3/8 of 48 by first dividing 48 by 8, which gives 6. Then multiply 6 by 3 to get 18.

21. A temperature rises from 18 degrees to 25 degrees. What is the increase?

A. 8 degrees B. 43 degrees C. 50 degrees D. 7 degrees

Correct answer: D Explanation: An increase is found by subtracting the starting value from the ending value. Here, 25 - 18 = 7.

22. A student spends $36 on three identical reference books. What is the price of one book?

A. $9 B. $15 C. $18 D. $12

Correct answer: D Explanation: The total cost is shared equally among three books. Dividing $36 by 3 gives $12 per book.

23. The ratio of red folders to blue folders is 2:3. If there are 30 folders altogether, how many are blue?

A. 18 B. 10 C. 12 D. 20

Correct answer: A Explanation: The ratio has 5 total parts. Each part is 30 divided by 5, or 6, and the 3 blue parts equal 18 folders.

24. A class’s quiz scores are 72, 80, 84 and 92. What is the mean score?

A. 80 B. 81 C. 82 D. 81.5

Correct answer: C Explanation: Add the scores: 72 + 80 + 84 + 92 = 328. Dividing 328 by 4 gives a mean of 82.

25. Which fraction is equivalent to 0.125?

A. 1/6 B. 1/5 C. 1/4 D. 1/8

Correct answer: D Explanation: Dividing 1 by 8 gives 0.125. The other listed fractions convert to different decimal values.

26. A rectangular noticeboard is 2.5 metres long and 1.2 metres wide. What is its area?

A. 3.0 square metres B. 2.7 square metres C. 2.9 square metres D. 3.7 square metres

Correct answer: A Explanation: The area of a rectangle is length multiplied by width. Multiplying 2.5 by 1.2 gives 3.0 square metres.

27. A medication schedule calls for a dose every 6 hours. If the first dose is at 7:00 a.m., when is the next dose due?

A. 11:00 a.m. B. 3:00 p.m. C. 7:00 p.m. D. 1:00 p.m.

Correct answer: D Explanation: Add 6 hours to 7:00 a.m. The resulting time is 1:00 p.m.

28. A value decreases by 20% from 150. What is the new value?

A. 100 B. 120 C. 110 D. 115

Correct answer: B Explanation: Twenty per cent of 150 is 30. Subtracting 30 from 150 leaves 120.

29. On a graph, a line passes through the points (1, 3) and (3, 7). What is its slope?

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

Correct answer: A Explanation: Slope is the change in y divided by the change in x. The y-value rises by 4 while the x-value rises by 2, so the slope is 2.

30. A box holds 14 gloves. How many gloves are in 9 full boxes?

A. 106 B. 136 C. 126 D. 146

Correct answer: C Explanation: Multiply the number of gloves in each box by the number of boxes. Fourteen times nine equals 126.

Science practice

31. Which cell structure controls what enters and leaves a cell?

A. Nucleus B. Ribosome C. Mitochondrion D. Cell membrane

Correct answer: D Explanation: The cell membrane forms the boundary of the cell and regulates movement of many substances in and out. The nucleus stores genetic material, while ribosomes and mitochondria have other roles.

32. Which organ pumps blood through the body?

A. Liver B. Heart C. Lung D. Kidney

Correct answer: B Explanation: The heart contracts to move blood through blood vessels. The liver, lungs and kidneys are all vital organs but do not serve as the main pump.

33. Which statement best describes an acid in an aqueous solution?

A. It always has a pH greater than 7. B. It cannot conduct electricity. C. It has a pH below 7. D. It always contains oxygen.

Correct answer: C Explanation: On the standard pH scale, acids have pH values below 7, while neutral solutions are at 7. The other statements are not defining features of all acids.

34. What is the main function of red blood cells?

A. To transport oxygen B. To produce hormones C. To digest fats D. To make antibodies

Correct answer: A Explanation: Red blood cells contain haemoglobin, which carries oxygen from the lungs to body tissues. Hormone production, fat digestion and antibody production are different functions.

35. Which body system includes the stomach and small intestine?

A. Respiratory system B. Nervous system C. Skeletal system D. Digestive system

Correct answer: D Explanation: The stomach and small intestine break down food and absorb nutrients. These organs belong to the digestive system.

36. During photosynthesis, plants use light energy primarily to make:

A. oxygen only B. soil minerals C. glucose D. proteins only

Correct answer: C Explanation: Photosynthesis uses light energy, carbon dioxide and water to produce glucose, with oxygen released as a product. Plants obtain minerals from soil rather than manufacture them through photosynthesis.

37. Which statement about viruses is most accurate?

A. All viruses are treated with antibiotics. B. Viruses require host cells to reproduce. C. Viruses are made of plant cells. D. Viruses can reproduce independently without a host.

Correct answer: B Explanation: Viruses use host-cell machinery to reproduce. Antibiotics act against bacteria, not viruses, and viruses are not made of plant cells.

38. Which part of the nervous system carries messages between the brain and much of the body?

A. Pancreas B. Thyroid gland C. Gallbladder D. Spinal cord

Correct answer: D Explanation: The spinal cord is a major pathway for nerve signals between the brain and the rest of the body. The other structures have functions outside that communication pathway.

39. Which change is a chemical change?

A. Ice melting in a glass B. Iron rusting in damp air C. Water boiling in a pan D. Sugar dissolving in tea

Correct answer: B Explanation: Rusting forms new substances when iron reacts with oxygen and water. Melting, boiling and dissolving are physical changes because they do not create a new substance in the same way.

40. Which statement explains why regular handwashing can reduce the spread of some infections?

A. It removes or reduces microorganisms from the hands. B. It raises body temperature. C. It changes a person’s blood type. D. It makes every microorganism harmless.

Correct answer: A Explanation: Handwashing can remove or reduce microorganisms that may be transferred from hands to surfaces, food or other people. It does not alter blood type, raise body temperature or make every microorganism harmless.

41. Gas exchange between air and blood occurs primarily in the:

A. trachea B. bronchi C. alveoli D. diaphragm

Correct answer: C Explanation: Alveoli are tiny air sacs in the lungs where oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged with surrounding capillaries. The trachea and bronchi conduct air, while the diaphragm helps breathing movements.

42. Which type of molecule carries genetic instructions in cells?

A. Lipid B. Starch C. DNA D. Water

Correct answer: C Explanation: DNA stores genetic information used by cells. Lipids, starch and water have important biological roles but do not carry the genetic code.

43. Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the body?

A. Left ventricle B. Right atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left atrium

Correct answer: A Explanation: The left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood into the aorta for delivery to the body. The right side of the heart directs blood towards the lungs.

44. In an experiment, which factor is deliberately changed by the investigator?

A. The control group B. The conclusion C. The independent variable D. The dependent variable

Correct answer: C Explanation: The independent variable is the factor the investigator changes. The dependent variable is measured to observe the effect of that change.

45. Which structure filters blood and helps form urine?

A. Skin B. Kidneys C. Spleen D. Pancreas

Correct answer: B Explanation: The kidneys filter waste and excess water from blood to help form urine. The skin, spleen and pancreas have other important functions.

Answer key

# Answer
1 D
2 A
3 A
4 D
5 B
6 B
7 C
8 B
9 B
10 C
11 B
12 A
13 D
14 C
15 A
16 D
17 C
18 B
19 A
20 A
21 D
22 D
23 A
24 C
25 D
26 A
27 D
28 B
29 A
30 C
31 D
32 B
33 C
34 A
35 D
36 C
37 B
38 D
39 B
40 A
41 C
42 C
43 A
44 C
45 B

Official sources to check before testing

Use these NLN Assessment Services primary documents before you prepare or book:

Nursing programs can apply their own admissions rules, cut scores and attempt limits, so their published instructions remain essential.